I have some brief points...

Date: 2005-11-25 12:42 pm (UTC)
Is speakership simply assumed for the purpose of presiding over disagreements between the other two? And could it be conferred without consent for the purpose of allowing debate between the two Lords who were awake?

I suppose what I really want to know is: if I'm part of a mini quorum in the Lords, but one of them is awake and I get into a row with the one who isn't, does the fact that the sleeping one is drunk count as his consenting to being made Speaker?


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